Answer: B) 13 + 1/3 days Explanation: C alone can finish the work in 40 days.As given C does half as much work as A and B together => (A + B) can do it in 20 days(A + B)s 1 days wok = 1/20.A's 1 days work : B's 1 days Work = 1/2 : 1 = 1:2(given)A's 1 day’s work = (1/20) x (1/3) = (1/60) [Divide 1/20 in the raio 1:2]B's 1 days work = (1/20) x (2/3) = 1/30(A+B+C)'s 1 day's work = (1/60) + (1/30) + (1/40) = 9/120 = 3/40 All the three together will finish it in 40/3 = 13 and 1/3 days.

Answer: D) 30 min Explanation: Part filled by (A + B) in 1 minute = (1/60 + 1/40) = 1/24Suppose the tank is filled in x minutes.Then, x/2(1/24 + 1/40) = 1(x/2) * (1/15) = 1 => x = 30 min.

Answer: B) 20th April, Saturday Explanation: Given Today is 20th January 2017, Sunday In january, we have 31 days February - 28 days (Non leap year) March - 31 days April - 30 days => Remaining days => 31 - 20 = 11 in Jan + 28 in Feb + 31 in Mar = 11 + 28 + 31 = 70 days More 20 days to complete 90 days => upto 20th April   Therefore, after 90 days from today i.e, 20th Jan 2017 is 20th Apr 2017.   Now, the day of the week will be  90/7 => Remainder '6' As the day starts with '0' on sunday  6 => Saturday.   Required day is 20th April, Saturday.

Answer: D) 72 Explanation: If number of visitors on 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th & 5th day are k, l, m, n & o respectively, thenk + l + m + n = 58 x 4 = 232 ---- (i) & l + m + n + o = 60 x 4 = 240 ---- (ii)Subtracting (i) from (ii), we get o-k = 8 ---(iii)Given, k/o = 8/9 ----(iv)So from (iii) & (iv), we geta = 64, e = 72Therefore, number of visitors on 5th day is 72.

Answer: B) 2160 स्पष्टीकरण: माना संख्या 3p और 5p ATQ, 8p = 2 x 48 p = 96/8 p = 12 संख्याएँ 36 और 60 हैं। इसलिए, संख्याओं का गुणनफल = 36 x 60 = 2160।

Answer: A) Rs. 404.80 Explanation: Let C1 be the cost price of the first article and C2 be the cost price of the second article.Let the first article be sold at a profit of 22%, while the second one be sold at a loss of 8%. We know, C1 + C2 = 600.The first article was sold at a profit of 22%. Therefore, the selling price of the first article = C1 + (22/100)C1 = 1.22C1The second article was sold at a loss of 8%. Therefore, the selling price of the second article = C2 - (8/100)C2 = 0.92C2. The total selling price of the first and second article = 1.22C1 + 0.92C2. As the merchant did not make any profit or loss in the entire transaction, his combined selling price of article 1 and 2 is the same as the cost price of article 1 and 2. Therefore, 1.22C1 + 0.92C2 = C1+C2 = 600As C1 + C2 = 600, C2 = 600 - C1. Substituting this in 1.22C1 + 0.92C2 = 600, we get1.22C1 + 0.92(600 - C1) = 600or 1.22C1 - 0.92C1 = 600 - 0.92*600or 0.3C1 = 0.08*600 = 48or C1 = 48/(0.3) = 160.If C1 = 160, then C2 = 600 - 160 = 440.The item that is sold at loss is article 2. The selling price of article 2 = 0.92*C2 = 0.92*440 = 404.80.

Answer: C) 450 Explanation: Given Series is 5, 14, 42, 107, 233, _? 5, 14, 42, 107, 233, _? Differences is 9, 28, 65, 126 9 = 2^3 + 1 28 = 3^3 + 1 65 = 4^3 + 1 126 = 5^3 + 1 Now, next difference must be 6^3 + 1 = 217 Hence, next number in the given series = 233 + 217 = 450.

Answer: A) 72 km Explanation: Rate of her upstream = 12/2.5 = 4.8 km/hr Then, ATQ Rate of downstream = 4.8 x 3 = 14.4 km/hr   Hence, the distance she covers downstream in 5 hrs = 14.4 x 5 = 72 kms.